Based on their comment above I asked if the following assumptions were correct. They appeared to confirm them:
It sounds like you are saying that if a drunk cyclist hits a pedestrian, it’s impossible for the pedestrian to get injured.
Or if that same cyclist weaves out in to the street, a car that hits them cannot be damaged (and the driver of the car won’t be held liable even though cyclists pretty much always have the right of way vs. cars).
Are you saying there are recorded facts that agree with their assumptions? Could you please provide a source?
No, I’m saying cyclists injure fewer pedestrians per year than sidewalks do, which is what your disagreeing comment appeared to be replying to. It’s a recorded fact that cyclists injure fewer pedestrians per year than sidewalks. For my country, that’s in the Recorded Road Casualties of Great Britain dataset.
I replied about your assumptions in another comment.
Cyclists injure fewer pedestrians per year than sidewalks do.
Thanks for confirming my assumptions above. I don’t agree.
How can you disagree with a recorded fact? 🙄
Based on their comment above I asked if the following assumptions were correct. They appeared to confirm them:
Are you saying there are recorded facts that agree with their assumptions? Could you please provide a source?
No, I’m saying cyclists injure fewer pedestrians per year than sidewalks do, which is what your disagreeing comment appeared to be replying to. It’s a recorded fact that cyclists injure fewer pedestrians per year than sidewalks. For my country, that’s in the Recorded Road Casualties of Great Britain dataset.
I replied about your assumptions in another comment.